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Results for "Leviticus 21:14"

Leviticus 21:14

Definition: A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, [or] an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife.


Explanation: Okay, let’s break down this verse from Leviticus 21:14. It's a really important and somewhat harsh rule about relationships in the Old Testament. Here’s what it means in simpler terms: Basically, this verse says that certain people – widows, divorced women, and unmarried women – are forbidden to marry. Let's unpack each part: “A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, [or] an harlot…” : These are the people who are specifically excluded from marriage. “Profane” is a tricky word; it means someone who has lost their way spiritually or has acted in a way that is considered dirty or unholy. "Harlot" refers to a woman who is known for being promiscuous and lacking moral character. “these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife.” : This is the core of the rule. It’s not about simply choosing someone randomly. It's about a specific, carefully chosen woman – a “virgin” – who is from their own community (meaning from their own tribe or nation). This woman will be married to him and become his wife. What's the point of this rule? The Bible says this is done to maintain purity and holiness in Israel. It’s a way to protect the people, particularly the women, from being exposed to impurity and to ensure they are raised in a righteous way. It emphasizes that marriage is about a relationship built on love, commitment, and obedience to God. Important Context: This verse comes from a time when Israel was facing a serious crisis – a period of intense idolatry and moral decay. The law was designed to purify the nation and re-establish its connection with God through strict rules. In short, this is a powerful rule about boundaries and purity within marriage, rooted in religious tradition and aimed at protecting the community. --- Do you want me to: Explain any of these terms further? Give an example of how this verse might have been interpreted in ancient times? Discuss the significance of this law in a broader context of Old Testament law?